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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 14:36

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are Christians quick to say that there are a lot the gay Christians that exist NOW and use that to pretend that Christianity is just loving to gays when the last 40 years of my life they been horrible?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.